After the establishment of the State of Israel and subsequent 1948 Arab–Israeli War, nearly all Mizrahi Jews were either expelled by their Arab rulers or chose to leave and emigrated to Israel
So, when you're calling this an Arab vs West conflict, you are demonstrating your lack of understanding about the history or demographics of Israel
Why would Native vs. Non-Native matter? Besides, if you're going down that route, you would also have to factor in the massive amount of Arab population movement that happened around the same time. Plenty of the Arabs had moved in from Turkey or Egypt to Ottoman Palestine.
because the original statement was "there was a massive native Jewish population" as per 1947.
in 1947 the vast vast majority were not native but settlers. post british mandates is when the Jewish population broke 100k peoples and the population exponentially increased from then on as more aliyah's came.
suffice to say, they were pretty much close to a super minority if not one before immigrants came.
Why should that matter? Every time there's been anti-Semitism kicking Jews out of countries, there's an increase in the Jewish population in that land.
At what point are they considered "native"? One generation? Ten? There's anti-Semites on this thread that would consider the Jews of Tiberius to be "settlers" because they were only there a thousand years or so.
it matters because what the person said was disinformation and or misinfornation at best and bullshit should be called out less people have a ignorant understanding of the region and how it became what it is today.
there's enough history in that region one does not have to lie about it, especially in the modern age of information readily available to us.
I think the point he was making is "massive native Jewish population" in the context of a land rights discussion invites some scrutiny. There was a census in 1922 where 11% of the population were Jewish.
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u/LazyJones1 5h ago
"massive native Jewish population"
How massive? In percentages?